Any steak that is not made with or is not served with frites is categorically not a "steak". How do we know this? Because steak and frites are better than steak with some non-steak-derived sauce like a simple jus and some kind of weak mashed stuff. How do we know this? Because it is better, better being necessarily and obviously defined as steak frites. Would there be a term such as "steak-frites" if "steak" and "frites" were not mutually defining? Of course not. History and geography and music all tell us this. Q.E.D., man. Q.E. and D. Ipso facto, the fact is: no frites, no steak. As my lawyer Seymour will tell you, "The party of the first part without the party of the second part ain't got no party. It might be your party and you can cry if you want to, but no frites, no steak." This pseudo-trollish message brought to you by The Steak-Frites Consortium For Epistemological Certainty, a not-for-profit charitable organiztion.