13 minutes ago, gfweb said:
I don't appreciate being labelled a troll. I never said British food uses no spices nor did I say that spices were appropriated.
I did say that if one cited Indian cuisine as evidence, THAT would be cultural appropriation. So don't twist what I said.
I didn't say YOU were a troll.
You did say or imply that Britain's use of Indian spices or Britain's adoption of Indian cuisine is "cultural appropriation". Or is only citing it "appropriation"?
I disagree. I repeat my question. By whom and from whom?