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shawarma_prince

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Posts posted by shawarma_prince

  1. I've always been curious about the origin of this sweet too. There's vague references to it being Central Asian on wikipedia but that doesn't seem likely to me. ˇhe Oxford Companion to Sugar and Sweet gives the best explanation: it is the melding of Southern European and Moorish(Arab/Berber) traditions. 

     

    Either way it is delicious.

    • Haha 1
  2. 5 hours ago, Ronald N. Tan said:

     

    This may be a rhetorical. I don't think anyone or any food experts will pinpoint exactly who invented the biryani that we know and love. At best, we could only go by folklore or anecdotes. What's fact concerning biryani have been said in the thread, it was brought into India by the Persians (Mughals). Cuisines like Lucknow, formerly Awadh (Awadhi Cuisine) have many scents called ittars used in their cooking. Common scents are kewra (screwpine essence) water and rose water, and let's not forget saffron!

     

    The anecdote surrounding the "invention of the biryani" is something I like and that is: Biryani was army food. Nothing fancy as it is today. It's simply a meal to nourish the bodies of soldiers and workers under the employ of the who ever was ruling back then. Only when the army food went into the royal kitchens, it became fancier...for the palate of the royal(s): using ghee, better quality meats, spices, and edible perfumes (ittars/attars...e.g. culinary grade essential oils).

    Mughals were technically Turks but I imagine they used a lot of Persian chefs in their kitchen.

     

    I think Paulo would have been what the armies ate no?

  3. On 7/7/2020 at 7:14 AM, Nicolai said:

    The jury still out but logical culinary history states that dishes emanated based on the resources of a country.

    In which case, North Africa is closer to Spain and the Spaniards got the Tomatoes from Latin America (Aztec...etc).

     

    So my money is on North Africa

     

    Egypt and the Levant are Johnny come lately.

     

    There's a similar Spanish dish apparently.

     

    https://www.tasteatlas.com/huevos-a-la-flamenca

  4. 3 hours ago, cdh said:

    That's not helpful.  Anybody can edit Wikipedia to say anything.  How long has that assertion been there, and what evidence is cited to back it up?  The editors stick [citation needed] in where they see a need... but are not omniscient.  


    That makes sense. Unfortunatley that's the only source most of the time. For example I still can't figure out if file dough is Turkish or greek and wikipedia is no help.

  5. On 6/15/2020 at 3:28 PM, shawarma_prince said:

    Are samosas, naans and pilaf/plof/polo also Persian in origin? or Turkish?

     

    I also contacted a prominent Iranian food expert who said joshpara was invented by Persian in preislamic times and Turkish/Armenian manti (and even Nepali momo) are derivative of that. Is that plausible? Obviously the momo part is not but the manti part?

     

     

    https://books.google.de/books?id=RL6LAwAAQBAJ&lpg=PA434&dq=joshpara&pg=PA434#v=onepage&q=joshpara&f=false

     

    It seems like the oxford companion to food agrees with a persian origin for joshpara(not sure if it had central asian or chinese influence). But manti is def turkish. so not sure how something can be invented by two cultures in the same region of the world and be considered seperate.

     

    I also read that steak tartare/hamburgers are from Mongol warriors and ice cream and bacon is also CHinese.

  6. On 6/19/2020 at 11:28 AM, Hassouni said:

     

    Samosa as are from sambousak which are of Persian origin and made it east to the Arab World and Horn of Africa, as well as Central asia, where they're known as "Samsa".

     

    Naan simply means "bread" in Persian. The Tandoor was around in Mesopotamia since Akkadian times with the name "tinuru", (modern Arabic "tannour") and similarly spread out. But in Persian naan/noon is literally any bread

     

    Pilav/Polow is also a Persian word.

     

    Mantı is Turkic in origin, spread by the Mongols as far east as Korea (mandu) and as far west as...I dunno, Eastern Europe, where they call it pelmeni?

     

     

    As far west As Central Europe (pierogi) or Western Europe (knodel?) tbh then.

     

    • Confused 1
  7. Are samosas, naans and pilaf/plof/polo also Persian in origin? or Turkish?

     

    I also contacted a prominent Iranian food expert who said joshpara was invented by Persian in preislamic times and Turkish/Armenian manti (and even Nepali momo) are derivative of that. Is that plausible? Obviously the momo part is not but the manti part?

  8. 2 hours ago, Hassouni said:

    reshteh is also Persian.

     

    But Persian food is hardly underrated, it's often counted as one of the world's greats.

     

    You have ancestry from directly west of Iran. I have ancestry from directly east of Iran. I can see how Persian food is not that well regarded or know about by people not from this part of the world. Even among people in the know Turkish food (and to some degree Arabic) is considered better. That's debatable but Persian food is definitely more influential. It might also be because certain things are falsely given a Arabic or Turkish origin and the Greek, Assyrian/Armenian (baklava-https://libanaissweets.com/about-us/the-history-of-baklava/), Caucasian (pide ie khachapuri) and Persian contribution to those cuisines is not considered. If joshpara and aushak are actually Persian then manti is probably just a derivation of that. Even the Arabic contribution to Turkish food is downplayed (lahmacun,falafelm hummus, kenefe, baba ganoush, style of rice etc).

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