Holy crap, I just read this whole thread (vastly entertaining; I got to learn a great deal, & feel both smug & unbelievably stupid) because it came up on a search thread I was doing, & what I was looking for in the first place didn't show up here at all. Emphasis on the stupid for my question: OK. Years ago, I made a call to order something from Godiva, & they pronounced it 'Godeeva'. I queried them, and they said, yes, that's it, everyone in the US [edit: and presumably Britain] just butchers it. So for years, I have been saying Godeeva, and feeling about as superior as when I pronounce 'forte' correctly (or Moet ). Now I am having a friendly internet discussion, & someone called the website phone number to confirm this (at my suggestion; I had heard it from the chocolatier's mouth!), and they were told, quote: that if someone was pronouncing it that way ['Godeeva'] they didn't deserve to eat any! My theories are: A) They got so weary of correcting American pronunciation of what is it, a French-Belgian pronunciation of a 'modern' British corruption of a Saxon name? that they changed it, B) The above, but when it was bought by Campbell's, they really decided they didn't feel like fighting the tide & dumbed it down for us Amurricans purposely, or C) They were shitting me on the phone all those years ago & just having their little joke. (Option D), that I am losing my memory with all my hormones in perimenopause, does not appeal.) Am I crazy? What gives? I am so glad that there is a place where knowledgable people who CARE about issues of such import are here to consult! Help! TIA, Susan B