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Can you tell the difference?


hathor
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Why would men and women have differing palates?

Why wouldn't men and women have differing palates, when we're biologically different in so many other ways? Women definitely have a more acute sense of smell than men once a month, and may have a more acute sense of smell overall. I know that for me, this means that I smell and taste components that my husband is unable to detect. I have no idea how this affects my cooking, but it seems impossible that it wouldn't.

Edit: When I say that I smell and taste things my husband can't detect, I definitely don't mean this is in any way superior. In fact, most of the time I'm smelling or tasting something I wish I couldn't.

Because our sex organs don't have anything to do with our tastebuds as far as I can tell. Maybe some women have a more acute sense of smell at some times of the month, but certainly not all do. I've certainly never heard of that before. There is only a real difference between groups if the distinction between them is greater than the distinction within each individual group, and I sincerely doubt that's the case.

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Why would men and women have differing palates?

Why wouldn't men and women have differing palates, when we're biologically different in so many other ways? Women definitely have a more acute sense of smell than men once a month, and may have a more acute sense of smell overall. I know that for me, this means that I smell and taste components that my husband is unable to detect. I have no idea how this affects my cooking, but it seems impossible that it wouldn't.

Edit: When I say that I smell and taste things my husband can't detect, I definitely don't mean this is in any way superior. In fact, most of the time I'm smelling or tasting something I wish I couldn't.

Because our sex organs don't have anything to do with our tastebuds as far as I can tell. Maybe some women have a more acute sense of smell at some times of the month, but certainly not all do. I've certainly never heard of that before. There is only a real difference between groups if the distinction between them is greater than the distinction within each individual group, and I sincerely doubt that's the case.

Women Nose ahead in Smell Tests

From the article:

Experts say many studies show women out perform men in olfactory (sense of smell) sensitivity.

Tim Jacobs, Professor of Physiology at Cardiff University, said: "Some studies have shown that during ovulation, there's a surge of oestrogen which increases sensitivity.

"The structure of the nose is the same in women as men.

"They don't have any more receptors in the nose.

"Studies have also shown smells activate a greater region in the brain in women than men."

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But what is that seriously supposed to demonstrate in terms of cooking? Unless women only cook while ovulating, how would that affect anything? Even then, what would the outcome be? Would I add more garlic while ovulating because I really really like it and can smell it so much better then, or would I use less? And still, smell is only one part of cooking. It doesn't make you measure things differently than you normally would, so I don't see any actual affect.

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No, it's not just while ovulating, it's in general (I see that the part I quoted would give that impression, though). Elsewhere it says, "There is a wealth of scientific data showing women's superiority at identifying and detecting odours at even very small concentrations."

All I'm suggesting is that if things smell different to men and women, then, because smell is so intimately related to taste, we can suppose that things might taste different to men and women, and if things taste different, then we might hypothesize that men and women might tend to cook differently as well. In what way, I don't know, and I don't know how you'd test it, and I don't actually have an opinion as to whether you can tell who's cooking. But it makes sense to me that there might be a gender difference.

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I don't think I could. Then again, I haven't been subjected to a great number of fine dinners.

(... I know this isn't the question, but I at least think there's no difference when it comes to pastry chefs.)

Mark

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I started this topic just to see if anyone else was thinking about it. Very interesting replies, and personally, I'm in the "I really don't care" camp, but find it interesting from an anthropological point of view.

Just for fun, I googled 'supertaster' and according to Wikipedia, women are more likely to be supertasters, as are Asians and Africans.

I do think that men and women approach things very differently, and in all probability this must show up in recipe creation. It would certainly be a great research topic.....

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Wouldn't the origin and originator of the dish make a difference?

For instance, if the recipe you're making was created by a man and you're a woman?

And in a restaurant, I think I can say that what you are served is almost never made by a single hand.

Excellent point about more than one hand making the dish. I sure have been more clear that I was curious about the creator of a recipe...

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